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The
Divine Name in the Christian Scriptures
A Restoration Light Bible Study
God said moreover to Moses, "You shall tell the children of Israel this, 'Yahweh, the God of your
fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is
my name forever, and this is my memorial to all generations. '" This document may be freely photocopied, printed or otherwise copied and distributed as long as
it is reproduced in its entirety (including this statement) with no additions or deletions are made to
its contents.
(1) In the past century there has been a controversy as to why the Divine Name does not appear in the Christian Scriptures, commonly called the New Testament. On one side, we have the "Jehovah's Witnesses" and various "Sacred Name" groups as well as many Bible Students that claim that the New Testament writers did use the divine name, but that it was removed and all manuscripts that contained the name were destroyed. The opposite camp claims that the New Testatment writers did not use the divine name, else God would have seen to it that it would have remained in the extant manuscripts. We believe that the New Testament writers did indeed use the divine name, and we believe that the both the Old Testament and the New Testament, taken together, give us reasonable information to come to this conclusion.
We will first present some history and our reasons for believing that the NT writers did indeed use the divine name, and then look at the counter-arguments. We assume that the reader has already studied the material in the publications: The Divine Name, The Name of Messiah and The Tetragrammaton in Genesis.
We read in Exodus 3:15, that Yahweh states that this would be his name forever, and that his name would his memorial to all generations. From reading this scripture, we conclude that the divine name was meant to be used for all eternity, that it was not some temporary arrangement with Moses.
Part of the Law that was given was the famous ten commandments. The first of these commandments reads: "I am Yahweh your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage. You shall have no other gods before me." (Exodus 20:2,3) Of course, most people are not aware of the divine name as part of this commandment, since most translations have substituted "the LORD" in place of the divine name, making it read something like: "I am the LORD your God." After warning of not serving the idols of the heathen, Yahweh says: "I, Yahweh your God, am a jealous God." -- Genesis 20:5.
Yahweh considered the use of his name to be a very serious matter. As part of the Law given to the Israelites, he said: "Be careful to do all things that I have said to you; and don't invoke the name of other gods, neither let them be heard out of your mouth." (Exodus 23:13) Yahweh is here speaking of the manner of swearing, as recorded in Deuteronomy 6:13; 10:20: "You shall fear [reverence] Yahweh your God; and him shall you serve, and shall swear by his name." I should be evident that from this command, it was God's intentions that his people should use his name, Yahweh, not hide it.
Joshua later reiterated this to Israelites, saying: "Therefore be you very courageous to keep and to do all that is written in the book of the law of Moses, that you not turn aside from it to the right hand or to the left; that you not come among these nations, these that remain among you; neither make mention of the name of their gods, nor cause to swear [by them], neither serve them, nor bow down yourselves to them; but cleave to Yahweh your God, as you have done to this day." -- Joshua 23:6-8.
While the Israelites wandered in the wilderness, however, there were times when the Israelites did venture off into worship of the heathen gods. The account is Numbers 25:1-4:
Israel abode in Shittim; and the people began to play the prostitute with the daughters of Moab: for they called the people to the sacrifices of their gods; and the people ate, and bowed down to their gods. Israel joined himself to Baal-peor: and the anger of Yahweh was kindled against Israel. Yahweh said to Moses, Take all the chiefs of the people, and hang them up to Yahweh before the sun, that the fierce anger of Yahweh may turn away from Israel. Moses said to the judges of Israel, Kill you everyone his men who have joined themselves to Baal-peor.
Who was this god called "Baal-peor" (Baal of Peor)? According to Easton's Bible Dictionary, Baal-peor means "Lord of the opening"*, a god of the Moabites (Numbers 25:3; 31:16; Joshua 22:17) According to the Jamieson, Faussett, Brown commentary: "-- Baal was a general name for "lord," and Peor for a "mount" in Moab. The real name of the idol was Chemosh, and his rites of worship were celebrated by the grossest obscenity. In participating in this festival, then, the Israelites committed the double offense of idolatry and licentiousness."** Yahweh gave the Israelites a great lesson in his jealousy by the execution of all who had joined themselve to Baal ("Lord") worship.
One might wonder what attracted the Israelites to worship this idol? No doubt the young women of the Moabites did have a large influence upon the men of Israel to join in with this worship. No doubt the gaiety of the climate made it very easy to slide into this idolatrous worship. The apostle Paul wrote concerning these events, that they are examples for Christians, lest they also be overtaken in worship of the idols common to our day. We reproduce below Matthew Henry's comments concerning this, as do seem to be very apt for our lesson. We have arranged in paragraphs and added a few word in brackets to make it more readable:
The sin of Israel, to which they were enticed by the daughters of Moab and Midian; they were guilty both of corporal and spiritual whoredoms, for Israel joined himself unto Baal-peor, v. 3. Not all, nor the most, but very many, were taken in this snare. Now concerning this observe:
1. That Balak, by the advice of Balaam, cast this stumbling-block before the children of Israel, Rev. 2:14. Note, Those are our worst enemies that draw us to sin, for that is the greatest mischief any man can do us. If Balak had drawn out his armed men against them to fight them, Israel [would] had bravely resisted, and no doubt [would] had been more than conquerors; but now that he sends his beautiful women among them, and invites them to his idolatrous feasts, the Israelites basely yield, and are shamefully overcome: those are smitten with this harlots that could not be smitten with his sword. Note, We are more endangered by the charms of a smiling world than by the terrors of a frowning world.
2. That the daughters of Moab were their tempters and conquerors. Ever since Eve was first in the transgression the fairer sex, though the weaker, has been a snare to many; yea strong men have been wounded and slain by the lips of the strange woman (Prov. 7:26), witness Solomon, whose wives were shares and nets to him Eccl. 7:26.
3. That whoredom and idolatry went together. They first defiled and debauched their consciences, by committing lewdness with the women, and then were easily drawn, in complaisance to them, and in contempt of the God of Israel, to bow down to their idols. And they were more likely to do so if, as it is commonly supposed, and seems probable by the joining of them together, the uncleanness committed was a part of the worship and service performed to Baal-peor. Those that have broken the fences of modesty will never be held by the bonds of piety, and those that have dishonoured themselves by fleshly lusts will not scruple to dishonour God by idolatrous worships, and for this they are justly given up yet further to vile affections.
4. That by eating of the idolatrous sacrifices they joined themselves to Baal-peor to whom they were offered, which the apostle urges as a reason why Christians should not eat things offered to idols, because thereby they had fellowship with the devils to whom they were offered, 1 Co. 10:20. It is called eating the sacrifices of the dead (Ps. 106:28), not only because the idol itself was a dead thing, but because the person represented by it was some great hero, who since his death was deified, as saints in the Roman church are canonized.
5. It was great aggravation of the sin that Israel abode in Shittim, where they had the land of Canaan in view, and were just ready to enter and take possession of it. It was the highest degree of treachery and ingratitude to be false to their God, whom they had found so faithful to them, and to eat of idol-sacrifices when they were ready to be feasted so richly on God’s favours.
II. God’s just displeasure against them for this sin. Israel’s whoredoms did that which all Balaam’s enchantments could not do, they set God against them; now he was turned to be their enemy, and fought against them. So many of the people, nay, so many of the princes, were guilty, that the sin became national, and for it God was wroth with the whole congregation.
1. A plague immediately broke out, for we read of the staying of it (v. 8), and of the number that died of it (v. 9), but no mention of the beginning of it, which therefore must be implied in those words (v. 3), The anger of the Lord was kindled against Israel. It is said expressly (Ps. 106:29), The plague broke in. Note, Epidemical diseases are the fruits of God’s anger, and the just punishments of epidemical sins; one infection follows the other. The plague, no doubt, fastened on those that were most guilty, who were soon made to pay dearly for their forbidden pleasures; and though now God does not always plague such sinners, as he did here, yet that word of God will be fulfilled, If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy, 1 Co. 3:17.
2. The ringleaders are ordered to be put to death by the hand of public justice, which will be the only way to stay the plague (v. 4): Take the heads of the people (that is, of that part of the people that went out of the camp of Israel into the country of Moab, to join in their idolatries)— take them and hang them up before the sun, as sacrifices to God’s justice, and for a terror to the rest of the people. The judges must first order them to be slain with the sword (v. 5), and their dead bodies must be hanged up, that the stupid Israelites, seeing their leaders and princes so severely punished for their whoredom and idolatry, without any regard to their quality, might be possessed with a sense of the evil of the sin and the terror of God’s wrath against them. Ringleaders in sin ought to be made examples of justice.
Henry, Matthew. "Commentary on Numbers 25". Why is all this important? Because to call upon the divine name involves worship. For a worshipper of Yahweh to call upon the name of another god in opposition to him, as shown here, Baal (meaning, Lord, Master), does provoke Yahweh's anger. Please note the word "Baal" or "Lord", of itself, is not what angered God, but rather the use of this word in the act of calling upon a false god. In other words, the Hebrew scriptures often uses the word "baal" as a title or description of various ones who are in some position as lord or master. It is even used in reference to husbands. So when God commanded not to make mention of the name of their gods, it is evident that he did not mean that we should not use the words that are used in their name, as those words, as baal, for instance, are used for titles of people throughout the Hebrew Scriptures. Nor does it mean that we should not use the name of the false god when calling attention to the worship of this or that god as being idolatry, for the Bible itself does such by referring to the name of God, as in this instance, Baal. It is the use of the word as a name in these sense that would seem to give approval or seeming legitimacy to the worship of the false god that is being spoken of, as in calling upon the name of such a god in prayer.
More to be added here later, Yahweh willing....
Was The Divine Name Removed in the New Testament?
The statement is often made that no one has removed the divine name from the New Testament. And yet, if one looks closely at the scriptures it becomes apparent that this is not so. Why do we state this? Because, if no one removed the name from the New Testament, when the New Testament writers quote the Old Testament scriptures that contain the divine name, we would find the divine name in those New Testament scriptures. But we don't, so it is self-apparent that the divine name has been removed in the New Testament.
For instance, let us look at Matthew 4:7:
Jesus said to him, "Again, it is written, 'You shall not test the Lord, your God.'" -- Matthew 4:7, World English Bible translation (WEB). Here Jesus quotes Deuteronomy 6:16: "You shall not tempt Yahweh your God." (WEB) It is evident that someone replaced the divine name here in the Greek with a form of Kurios, without the definite article as it appears in the English. Someone had to remove it, else we would find some form of the Divine Name in this verse instead of Kurios. The question is who? Did Jesus remove it? Did Matthew remove it? Or did someone else later remove it?
Let us now look at Matthew 22:37:
Jesus said to him, "'You shall love the Lord (Kurios) your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind.' (WEB) Here Jesus quotes Deuteronomy 6:5: "You shall love Yahweh your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your might." (WEB) Again, it is self-evident that the divine name has been replaced with Kurios. The question is not if someone replaced it. The question is "who?" Should we think that Jesus replaced it? Should we think that Jesus followed the disobedient Jews in replacing the divine name with Kurios? Should we think that Matthew himself replaced the divine name?
Let us look at another scripture, Matthew 23:39:
Here Jesus quotes the name of the God in whose name he came. Directly it is from Psalm 118:26: "Blessed is he who comes in the name of Yahweh." (WEB) So again, there is a subsitution of the very name of God. Again, it is not a question of if, since it is obvious that the name is not there, but it is a question of "who?" Did Jesus substitute the divine name with Kurios? Did Matthew? Or did someone else do so?
There is something else we need to note concerning Jesus' statement in Matthew 23:39. Indirectly, it is a confirmation of Deuteronomy 18:15-20: "Yahweh your God will raise up to you a prophet from the midst of you, of your brothers, like me; to him you shall listen; according to all that you desired of Yahweh your God in Horeb in the day of the assembly, saying, Let me not hear again the voice of Yahweh my God, neither let me see this great fire any more, that I not die. Yahweh said to me, They have well said that which they have spoken. I will raise them up a prophet from among their brothers, like you; and I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I shall command him. It shall happen, that whoever will not listen to my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him. But the prophet, who shall speak a word presumptuously in my name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or who shall speak in the
name of other gods, that same prophet shall die." (WEB)
According to these words, if the prophet came in another name than Yahweh, then he was to be put to death. It is obvious that "Kurios" in Matthew 23:39 would define the name that Jesus came in. But did Jesus actually say that he had come in the name of a god by the name of Kurios, or did Jesus say he had come in the name of Yahweh, as foretold in Deuteronomy, and thus someone else later changed what he said to "Kurios"?
Of course, we could go through the entire New Testament this way and ask the same questions concerning the following scriptures, which are either quotes or references to Old Testament scriptures wherein the divine name appears, but have been changed to some other word in the New Testament manuscripts as we have them. -- Matthew 1:22; 2:15; 3:3; 4:7; 5:33; 21:9,42; 22:37,44; 23:39; 27:10; Mark 1:3; 11:9,10; 12:11,29,30,36; Luke 3:4; 4:8,12,18,19; 10:27; 13:35; 19:38; 20:37; John 1:23; 12:13,38; Acts 2:20,21,25,34; 3:22; 4:26; 7:30,31,33,37,49; 13:47; 15:17; Romans 4:8; 9:28,29; 15:11; 1 Corinthians 10:26,28; 2 Corinthians 6:17,18; Hebrews 1:10; 7:21; 8:8,9,10,11; 10:16,30; 12:5,6; 13:6; 2:9; John 5:4; 1 Peter 1:25; 3:12. Some others: Matthew 1:20,22,24; 2:13,19; 26:64; Mark 16:19; Luke 1:11; 2:9; 22:69; John 5:4; Acts 2:33; 5:19,31; 7:30,55,56; 8:26,34; 12:7; 12:23; Romans 10:13; Colossians 3:1; Hebrews 1:3,13; 8:1; 10:12; 12:2; 1 Peter 3:22. (This list may not be complete.)
Is "Jesus" the Divine Name in the New Testament?
Some are claiming that the name Yahweh has been replaced with the name of "Jesus" in the New Testament. Therefore we are no longer to call upon the name of "Yahweh", as did the Israelites, but we are to call upon the name of "Jesus" as the only true God. While there is actually nothing either in the Old Testament or the New Testament that says that the name "Yahweh" would ever be replaced with another, there are several scriptures have been presented to allegedly support this idea. Among them are these: John 8:58 (with Exodus 3:14); 17:11; Philippians 2:9,10; Romans 10:13.
It is claimed in John 8:58 Jesus applies the name Yahweh to himself, but use of the Greek term, "ego eimi". This is then cross-referenced with Exodus 3:14, where Yahweh uses the first person of Hayah (EHYEH), which is usually translated as "I am" by most translators. In reality, Jesus never says that his name is Ego Eimi, in any form or shape that is similar to Yahweh's statement that his name is EHYEH in Exodus 3:14. This thought has to be added to and read into John 8:58. That John 8:58 has no reference to Exodus 3:14 has been dealt with thoroughly in our study: "I am" in John 8:58
The next scripture is John 17:11:
As this reads in the above translation, it appears that God has given God's name to Jesus. If this were really what Jesus was saying, then this would not mean that God changed his name to Jesus, but rather that Jesus would have the name "Yahweh". In other words, if this scripture be taken that God gave his name (Yahweh) to his Son, then we should be calling his Son by the name of Yahweh, not Jesus.
Actually, many other translations make it clearer as to what Jesus was talking about:
This makes it clear that what the God of Jesus had given to Jesus were his followers, the sheep. Jay Green's Interlinear reads: "Father Holy, keep them in the name of You, whom you gave to me." This harmonizes with many other scriptures: John 6:37; 10:29; 17:6,9,12,24; 18:9. Thus seen, we see that Jesus was not saying that his God had given to him the name of his God, but that the God of Jesus had to given to him those who were being called out of the world as his sheep.
What about Philippians 2:9,10:
Philippians 2:9 - Therefore God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name which is above every name; Of course, Philippians 2:9,10 says nothing about the divine name. Yahweh (Jehovah), the God and Father of Jesus (Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 4:4 [Deuteronomy 8:3; Luke 4:4]; Matthew 4:7 (Deuteronomy 6:16); Matthew 4:10 [Exodus 20:3-5; 34:14; Deuteronomy 6:13,14; 10:20; Luke 4:8]; Matthew 22:29-40; Matthew 26:42; Matthew 27:46; Mark 10:6 [Genesis 1:27; Genesis 2:7,20-23]; Mark 14:36; 15:34; Luke 22:42; John 4:3; 5:30; 6:38; 20:17; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 10:7; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12), has "given" to Jesus "a name" that is above all other names. This "name", however, is not the appellation "Jesus", for Jesus already had this appellation. The word "name" is being used here in reference to office or station.
Nor does Philippians 2:10 mean that the name of Yahweh is being replaced with the name of Jesus. The scripture does not say that, but rather simply that at the name of Jesus every knee is to bow, and as verse 11 states, this is "to the glory of God, the Father."
If the name of Yahweh had been replaced by the name of Jesus, then Matthew 23:39 would read: "For I tell you, you will not see me from now on, until you will say, 'Blessed is he who comes in the name of Jesus."
Romans 10:13 would have read:
For, "Whoever will call on the name of Jesus will be saved."
Mark 12:29 would have read:
Jesus answered, "The greatest is, 'Hear, Israel, Jesus our God, Jesus is one."
Luke 4:12 would have read:
Jesus answering, said to him, "It has been said, 'You shall not tempt Jesus your God.'"
Luke 4:18 would have read:
"The Spirit of Jesus is on me, Because he anointed me to preach good news to the poor. He has sent me to heal the brokenhearted, To proclaim release to the captives, Recovering of sight to the blind, To deliver those who are crushed,
Acts 2:34 would have said:
For David didn't ascend into the heavens, but he says himself, 'Jesus said to my Lord, "Sit by my right hand,
Acts 3:22 would have said:
For Moses indeed said to the fathers, 'Jesus God will raise up a prophet to you from among your brothers, like me. You will listen to him in all things whatever he says to you.'
Acts 7:37 would have said:
This is that Moses, who said to the children of Israel, 'Jesus God will raise up a prophet to you from among your brothers, like me.'
Acts 7:49 - would have said:
'heaven is my throne, And the earth the footstool of my feet. What kind of house will you build me?' says Jesus; 'Or what is the place of my rest?
We could go on, but these scriptures make the point: The name of the God and Father of Jesus, Yahweh, is not replaced by the name of Jesus in the NT; the facts show that the divine name, Yahweh, was replaced by "Kurios" or "Theos" (and possibly, "Dunamis" -- Matthew 26:64; Mark 14:62; Luke 22:69), not "Jesus".
Philippians 2:10,11 - that at the name of Jesus every knee would bow [Greek, Kampto, Strong's #2578], of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue would confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God, the Father.
Isaiah 45:23 - By myself have I sworn, the word is gone forth from my mouth [in] righteousness, and shall not return, that to me every knee shall bow [Kara`, Strong's #3766], every tongue shall swear.
Someone might argue that these two scriptures together show that the name of Yahweh was being replaced with Jesus' name, since the worship due Yahweh is being given to Jesus.
Why is this honor and homage to be given to Jesus (Philippians 2:11)? Because "God also highly exalted him, and gave to him the name [office] which is above every name." (Philippians 2:9 -- of course it is evident that God's name -- his office -- his position -- is excluded, as shown in 1 Corinthians 15:27) It is not because Jesus is Yahweh, but because the God of Jesus -- Yahweh -- has exalted him to this high position. But that is not all, for this honor and homage is given to Jesus is "to the glory of God, the Father." It is to the glory of the God and Father of Jesus, "the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory". -- Ephesians 1:17.
Neither the Hebrew word for worship [Shachah, Strong's #7812], nor the Greek word for worship [Proskuneo, Strong's #4352], is being used in these scriptures. Nor is there any indication that Paul is applying the words of Isaiah 45:23 to Jesus, although he does use similar language.
See our study on Worship
Similarly, those of the synagogue of Satan will bow before the saints, who will have dominion with Jesus in the age to come. (Daniel 7:14,22,27; Revelation 20:1-6) "For he is not a Jew who is one outwardly... but he is a Jew who is one inwardly, and circumcision is that of the heart." (Romans 2:28, 29) The false "Jews", referred to as liars, are not now worshipping God in spirit and truth in this age, but are still blinded by Satan. (2 Corinthians 4:4; Revelation 12:9) The synagogue of Satan, very evidently, is made up of professing Christians, picked or selected by Satan, to falsify the doctrines of Christ; being a part of the permission of evil. They oppose the spiritually-enlightened ones, and brotherly love is not in them. As those who crucified the Lord will yet be caused to confess and abhor their wickedness, so the opposers of this period will have the shame of seeing, and confessing their wrong doing; and yes, they will worship God, by bowing before and acknowledging the righteousness authority of God's appointed kings and rulers in the age to come. This is further confirmed by Isaiah 60:14. When the blessings are flowing out to all the earth, it will seem to be impossible not to bow before Jesus and his saints to the glory of God. -- Philippians 2:10.
Paul does say that all will bow to Jesus, and the same is said of Yahweh in Isaiah. This does not mean that Jesus is Yahweh, or that the name of Yahweh is being replaced by the name of Jesus, and this is shown in the context of what is said in Philippians as well as the rest of the scriptures. The homage given to Jesus is as Yahweh's anointed king who represents Yahweh, not as Yahweh himself.
Philippians 2:9-11 actually states:
Therefore God also highly exalted him [thus he is not God who exalted him], and gave to him the name which is above every name [thus he is not God who gives him this name]; that at the name of Jesus every knee would bow, of those in heaven, those on earth, and those under the earth, and that every tongue would confess that Jesus Christ is Lord [the one made so by Yahweh], *to the glory of God*, the Father.
Is the "worship" given to the king of Israel equivalent to the worship given to Yahweh?
"And David said to all the assembly, Now bless Jehovah your God. And all the assembly blessed Jehovah, the God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped Jehovah, and the king." (1 Chronicles 29:20, American Standard Version)
One must admit that the worship given to the King is not equal to that Yahweh, nor is the worship given to the One anointed by Yahweh equal to that of Yahweh. Thus the homage given to Jesus is as the representative of God, and to the glory of God. Nothing is said about the homage being equal to that given to Yahweh, anymore than we would say that the worship given to the king of Israel and to Yahweh are equal.
It is claimed that Philippians 2:11 shows that the kind of worship given to Jesus brings glory to the Father since Jesus is God. While it appears that Isaiah 45:23 is indirectly applied to Jesus by Paul, the idea that Paul meant this to say that Jesus is God who exalted Jesus and gave Jesus the high position has to be read into what is said. Christians who believe that Jesus is the Son of God -- not God Almighty -- have no reason to add the idea that Jesus is Yahweh to the scriptures.
Again, it is absolutely and positively apparent that the worship -- homage -- given to the Son of God is that which is due to him as the Son of God, the one anointed as King by Yahweh, not as God Almighty who anointed him.
No one can come to Yahweh but through Jesus (John 14:6), and no other means has been given by Yahweh for salvation than the name of Jesus. (Acts 4:12) Jesus' name means: "Yahweh saves" or Yahweh is savior," which ascribes the actual source of salvation to Yahweh. (John 3:16; Romans 5:8,10; 1 Corinthians 15:57; 2 Corinthian 5:19-21; Titus 3:5,6; Hebrews 13:21; 1 John 4:9,10) Thus to properly bow before Jesus as the spokesperson and one anointed by Yahweh (Deuteronomy 18:15,18,19; Psalm 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Matthew 12:18; Luke 4:18,21), would essentially be the same as bowing to Yahweh. -- Matthew 10:14; Mark 9:37; Luke 9:48; John 13:20; Romans 1:8; 7:25; 14:26; Philippians 1:11; 2:11.
Taken in harmony with the context and the rest of the scriptures, there is nothing in Philippians 2:9,10 that would lead us to believe that the divine name was being replaced by the name of "Jesus".
What about Romans 10:13? Does the context of this verse show that the Lord here refers to Jesus? Only if that is what one sees in it. The reference to Joel 2:32 shows that "Yahweh" is being replace by "kurios".
Romans 10:13 - For, "Whoever will call on the name of the Lord [Greek, kuriou, without an article] will be saved."
Joel 2:32 - It will happen that whoever will call on the name of Yahweh shall be saved; For in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there will be those who escape, As Yahweh has said, And among the remnant, those whom Yahweh calls.
Again, it should be clear that "Kurios" as it appears in the extant manuscripts of Romans 10:13 is being used like a proper personal name, just as Yahweh is being so used in the Joel 2:32. To say that "Lord" here refers to Jesus implies that "Yahweh" is being replaced throughout the New Testament by "Lord" in order to designate Jesus. This, of course, is nonsense, as we have already seen in the examination of Philippians 2:9,10.
Certainly, Jesus is the means that Yahweh has provided for salvation (John 3:16,17), no one can come to Yahweh but through Jesus (John 14:6), and no other means has been given by Yahweh for salvation than the name of Jesus. (Acts 4:12) Jesus' name means: "Yahweh saves" or "Yahweh is savior," which ascribes the actual source of salvation to Yahweh. (John 3:16; Romans 5:8,10; 1 Corinthians 15:57; 2 Corinthian 5:19-21; Titus 3:5,6; Hebrews 13:21; 1 John 4:9,10) Thus to properly call upon the name of Jesus as the spokesperson and one anointed by Yahweh (Deuteronomy 18:15,18,19; Psalm 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Matthew 12:18; Luke 4:18,21), would essentially be the same as calling upon the name of Yahweh. (Matthew 10:14; Mark 9:37; Luke 9:48; John 13:20; Romans 1:8; 7:25; 14:26; Philippians 1:11; 2:11) But to ascertain whether Romans 10:13 is calling Jesus Yahweh, let us go through the tenth chapter of Romans briefly, to see exactly who Paul speaks of.
Romans 10:1: Brothers, my heart's desire and my prayer to God is for Israel, that they may be saved.
In verse one, Paul says he prays to God for the salvation of Israel. Who is the God of Israel? This, of course, is Yahweh. (Exodus 16:12; 20:2; 34:32) Through Jesus we learn that the God of Israel -- Yahweh -- is the Father of Jesus. (Deuteronomy 18:15,18,19; Matthew 23:39; Luke 13:35; John 5:43; 8:54; 10:25) Paul thus recognizes Yahweh, the God of Israel as the source of salvation.
Romans 10:2: For I testify about them that they have a zeal for God, but not according to knowledge."
In these verses, Paul discusses Israel's relationship with God -- Yahweh. He says that they are ignorant of God's righteousness (Romans 3:22), and sought to make themselves righteous by means of obedience to the Law. Then he reveals that the righteousness of God is in Christ, who is the end of the law [covenant] to everyone who believes.
See:
Romans 10:5: For Moses writes about the righteousness of the law, "The one who does them will live by them."
Paul is still speaking about the relationship of Israel with Yahweh, the God of Israel. Anyone who could keep the Law would be totally righteous, having the right to life thereby. If it were possible to do so, then righteousness and life would have come by the Law.
Romans 10:6: But the righteousness which is of faith says this, "Don't say in your heart, 'Who will ascend into heaven?' (that is, to bring Christ down); Those who seek righteousness by faith are are not hidden from the truth.. It is not something far off in heaven or in the grave. Those of faith do not have go to heaven to find the Anointed One of Yahweh, nor do they have to go to the grave to try to bring him back from the dead. This thing is not hidden from the one of faith, neither is it afar off -- difficult to understand. (See also: Deuteronomy 30:11-14; notice that Paul is not quoting Deuteronomy, but he does use similar phraseology.)
In this Paul is still writing about the relationship of Israel with the God of Israel, Yahweh. He is showing that the proper way to obtain the righteousness of God is through faith, which he goes on to show is through the faith in the ransom sacrifice given by One Anointed by Yahweh, that is Jesus.
Romans 10:8: But what does it say? "The word is near you, in your mouth, and in your heart;" that is, the word of faith, which we preach:
Here Paul points out the way to Yahweh's righteousness as provided through Jesus. (John 3:17; Romans 3:22-24; 5:1,9,10; 2 Corinthians 5:18; Galatians 4:7; 1 Thessalonians 5:9) We must remember that it is Yahweh who made Jesus "Lord" and "Christ" [Christ means "anointed one"] (Psalm 2:2; 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Acts 2:36) Many read this verse as though only Jesus is spoken of, but we note the context is about Yahweh and the salvation he provides through Jesus.
Romans 10:10: For with the heart, one believes unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation.
In Romans 10:11, Paul uses language similar to that of Isaiah 28:16: "therefore thus says the Lord [Adonay] Yahweh, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner -[stone] of sure foundation: he who believes shall not be in haste." Here is it Yahweh is who is the provider of the sure foundation, and then he tells us that he who believes in him, that is, in the foundation provided by Yahweh, shall not be in haste. The one of faith does not have to be anxious about trying to find any other source or any other way of salvation, for it is found in the sure foundation provided by Yahweh, nor does the one of faith in this sure foundation have any reason to have any hint of disappointment or shame in the foundation provided by Yahweh.
Romans 10:12: For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, and is rich to all who call on him.
Here the apostle joins the God of Israel with the believing Greeks (representing those outside the law covenant). Yahweh is the same Lord (the One spoken of as Adonay in Isaiah 28:16 just referenced) over all, and will richly bless all who call on him.
Romans 10:13: For, "Whoever will call on the name of Yawheh will be saved."
This brings us to the scripture in question. Paul here makes reference to whoever will call upon the name of Yahweh will be saved. If we consider scriptures leading up to this scripture, it should be plain that Paul is making reference to Yahweh, the God of Israel, with whom both Jew and Gentile needs reconciliation. That reconciliation, however, as the apostle points out, is by faith, not by the keeping of the law. While we highly doubt that Paul substituted "Kurios" here for God's name, even if he did it is evident that he is referring to Yahweh, for it is Yahweh with whom both Jew and Gentile needs to be reconciled (Romans 5:9,10), and it is from Yahweh, the Father, that one comes to the means that Yahweh provided for salvation, that is, in his Son, Jesus. -- Acts 10:43; 20:21; John 3:17; 6:44
Romans 10:14: How, then, shall they call on him whom they have not believed? And how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? And shall they hear without a preacher?
Again in verse 14 the thought is primarily of Yahweh, who sent his Son. No one can call upon Yahweh if they don't believe in him through his Son Jesus. (Romans 3:22-24; 5:1,11; 7:25; 14:26) The vast majority have never come to Yahweh, he who provided the "ransom for all", which will be testified, made known, in due time. (1 Timothy 2:5,6) Thus all heathen will hear, they will all be brought to a knowledge of Yahweh and his Son Christ Jesus in the age to come. -- Isaiah 2:2-4.
See: There is nothing in Romans 10:13 that implies that Yahweh has been replaced by "kurios" in order to designate Jesus as the same being as Yahweh, as many have claimed. There is nothing in Romans 10:13 that says that we are to call upon the name Jesus instead of calling upon the name of Yahweh.
More to follow, Yahweh willing...
This document is not yet completed. Yahweh willing, we plan to add more to this later. Last update: February 19, 2005; updated links below: October 4, 2004. It is our hopes that associated Bible study groups all over the world will utilize Restoration Light publications in their Bible study. Feel free to print and distribute copies this and/or our other studies for other Bible Students and/or interested persons.
Some related material written by others: http://www.godstruthfortoday.org/Library/bullinger/app98.html http://jehovah.freewebpage.org/ Divine Name in the New Testament: B-Greek comments by Rolf Furuli
Divine Name in the New Testament: B-Greek comments by Wes Williams
http://www.jehovah.to/exe/greek/tetragram.htm http://www.jehovah.to/exe/greek/yhwh.htm http://jehovah.to/exe/translation/nwterrors1.htm BGreek: YHWH in LXX Papyrii Wes Williams
BGreek: YHWH in LXX Papryii (Shortened) Wes Williams
Exceptional Documents (Gerard Gertoux) -- Some interesting documents pertaining to the divine name. The author presents an argument that Yehowah is the correct pronunciation of the divine name. Please note, however, that this presentation is still based on various assumptions. Information concerning purchasing the book by Mr. Gertoux can be seen by : by clicking here. A free sample of his book is available for download: http://gertoux.online.fr/divinename/faq/A17.htm http://gertoux.online.fr/divinename/faq/A18.htm
What Did Yahshua Call His Father? -- While we do not agree with much of the conclusions presented here, the author does give evidence that the Messiah did use the divine name.
Restored Name King James Version -- This edition presents he Hebrew words for God in the text, and presents the divine name in its Hebrew form. It presents Jesus' also in its Hebrew form in the NT. However, it goes overboard in its efforts to restore the divine name in the New Testament, thus its usage in the NT is not very reliable.
A Misunderstood Jehovah
New Light on Matthew's Gospel (Neil Altman)
DuTillet Hebrew Matthew (James Trimm)
Hebrew Gospel of Matthew according to a Primitive Hebrew Text (George Howard)
Either/or (Pt I) (Robert L. Perkins (Editor), George Howard)
In spite of the fact that everyone thinks that Yeshu and friends and most of the earliest Christians all spoke primarily if not exclusively a Semitic tongue, everyone also thinks that all of our canonical gospels were authored originally in Greek. Somehow this always seemed a little doubtful to me; something just didn't make sense here. Well, now that I looked into this mater for myself, what do we have? There's this highly intriguing Hebrew gospel of Matthew, as preserved in a medieval work by Shem-Tob ben-Shaprut, that seems quite early.
Prof. George Howard has done a lot of work on this gospel, and his book shows it. He saved HebMt from its undeserved obscurity.
Shem-Tob Ben Yitzach ben-Shaprut, a Jewish scholar working in Spain, preserved this document in his polemical treatise EVAN BOHAN that dates to the 14th century (ca 1380 C.E.). It is now agreed upon almost universally that Shem-Tob did not make the translation himself. He received the Hebrew text from some previous tradents, most likely Jewish. So who prepared the translation, and when? Or is it really a translation? Maybe it's the real thing? Perhaps it is the Greek Mt that was the translation from the Hebrew? And what does this mysterious gospel do to the Synoptic problem, and to the theorising about the HJ?
After reading Howard's book, it seems to me that some of the answers to these questions may lie on the surface, while others still remain hazy and need more research. Nevertheless, it seems reasonably clear that the Hebrew text was not the product of some medieval translator. At least some parts of this text, indeed, seem to go back to early antiquity. In my view, the Hebrew Gospel of Matthew is now well on its way towards making a revolution in biblical scholarsip. The wheels of academic scholarship grind slowly, but eventually they always produce results, and good evidence always finds acceptance in the end.
Unfortunately not enough attention is given to this text so far. Buy this book and read it. This is a very important book. Our Father... Hallowed be THY NAME POxy 3522: tetragrammaton http://www.iouo-god.net/Study/Chapter_3/hauptteil_chapter_3.html http://mysite.wanadoo-members.co.uk/newworldtranslation/dangerous.htm Did the Messiah say the Sacred Name? http://hector3000.future.easyspace.com/jhvh.htm
Jehovah's Name in the New Testament http://www.commentarypress.com/essay-whatcanido.htmlWhat Can I Do? The Divine Name That Will Endure Forever The Truth About the Third Commandment Yahweh's Name in the Dead Sea Scrolls http://mysite.wanadoo-members.co.uk/newworldtranslation/jehovah.htm http://www.ynca.com/sacredname.htm [Click Here for Printable Version of Studies]
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