One trinitarian asks, if God is a single person, then why is the plural ELOHIM (literally "Gods") used for God repeatedly? In fact, the plural noun is in the center of Israel's famous confession of the oneness of God! The Shema declares, "Hear, 0 Israel: the Lord our God is one Lord" (Dt 6:4;Mk 12:29). In the Hebrew it reads, "Jehovah our Elohim (gods) is one [echad] Jehovah."
Our question in reply would be: Are we to believe that Yahweh is "Gods" -- more than one God? What about Moses? Did Yahweh make Moses "Gods" -- more than one God -- to Pharaoh? "See, I have made thee a god [ELOHIM] to Pharaoh." (Webster translation - Exodus 7:1) Was Moses made a plurality of persons to Pharaoh?
Like some other Hebrew words, the plural is often used in a singular setting to denote either the superlative or the superior case. As applied to Yahweh (singular), it certainly denotes the superlative case, the Supreme God. It does not mean that Yahweh is "gods", nor does "gods" mean "persons" of God, etc.
http://godandson.reslight.net/e-p.htmlIn service of Jesus and his God,
Ronald