The claim is often made by trinitarians and some others that "I am" in John 8:58 and some other verses means that Jesus is eternal without beginning.
It is an assumption that Jesus was here stating that he is eternal "without beginning". The thought of "without beginning" has to actually be added to and read into what Jesus said.
Most literally, EGO EIMI means "I am" -- present tense, and that it is how it appears in most translations. However, Jesus is speaking of his existence in the past, not just the present. In the Koine Greek, the present tense is often used in the context of the past is often used to denote a past continuity. Many wish this to be translated as "I AM" in order to connect it with "I AM" -- Ehyeh -- of Exodus 3:14, or with certain scriptures in Isaiah, such as Isaiah 41:4 and Isaiah 43:10, with the thought that this phrase means without beginning or without end.* "I am" however, is simply present tense, and simply states what is now, and in itself states nothing about past and future.
However, the present tense, when used in a past tense situation, as it is used in John 8:58, expresses an action begun in the past and continued, sometimes even to the present. Indeed, this usage in John 8:58 is the only place in the Bible that I know where there are those who insist that this usage in John 8:58, so as to have the present tense actually rendered in the present tense, and thus claim that Jesus was claiming to be eternal, without beginning, without end, etc. And the only reason for doing this in John 8:58 is to satisfy a doctrine that has to be added to and read into the scriptures. Thus, some trinitarians especially, would like the past tense usage of a the present tense in this verse to mean their idea of eternal. In reality, what happens is that trinitarian is using John 8:58 as proof that Jesus always existed by using circular reasoning: Since we believe that Jesus has always existed, then this usage in John 8:58 means that Jesus always existed, and thus since we believe that it means that Jesus always existed, then it is proof that Jesus always existed.
In view of the context wherein Jesus was being asked how old he was, this can be expressed in English as "I have been," but probably even better "I have been being" or "I have been existing" since it is existence that is being spoken of in context, thus "I have been existing before Abraham was". Many translations do render ego eimi here as "I was" or "I existed", but this causes the verb to loose the past continuity, although they can be used since it is self-evident that he was still in existence when he spoke the words. "Have been" in English denotes "present perfect", while "have been being/existing" denotes "continuous perfect". But it is the continuous element that many of our trinitarian neighbors point to, and thus read into this continuous past the thought of eternal past, although past-present continuity in itself does not necessarily, and very rarely ever does, mean continous past eternity. It simply denotes that when something or someone had begun activity or existence, that it/he has continued to express/have such activity/existence.
Jesus, of course, was not discussing his name in John 8:58, but rather his age. If Jesus was declaring that he was Ehyeh, as God does in Exodus 3:14, then it would have had to been in reference to the name, for that is how it is expressed in Exodus 3:14.
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*I have discussed the meaning of "Ehyeh" in:
http://godandson.reslight.net/?p=253 and
http://name.reslight.net/dn.html Christian love,
Ronald
Updated: September 20, 2008
