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Is Jesus Ominiscient?

A consideration of the following scriptures: Mark 2:8; Luke 9:47; John 2:25; 4:18; 12:46; 16:30; Colossians 2:3.

General Comments

Many trinitarians (and some others), by use of these scriptures, claim that Jesus in the flesh had the same sentiency as his Father, knowing absolutely everything there is to know about absolutely everything in the universe; if so, the logical conclusion would be that there would be no need for Jesus in the flesh to receive or learn anything at all in the flesh, since he already knew it all. -- Deuteronomy 18:15,18; 1S Samuel 2:6; Psalm 36:9; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,21-23,25-30,43; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.

Of course, none of the scriptures presented, when examined closely, are saying that Jesus knows absolutely everything in the universe, either. The holy spirit reveals in the scriptures that all power to "know" these things were given to Jesus by his God and Father. -- Deuteronomy 18:15,18; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.

In reality, Jesus is not omniscient. If he is, then we would wonder how he could be a separate sentient person from the Father, as our trinitarian neighbors claim. In other words, if both the Father and the Son are ominiscient, then they must share the same exact sentiency, and in reality be the same sentient being, not separate sentient "persons", as the trinity dogma calls for.

We know that Jesus is not omniscient, because there are things that he does not know, or he has to receive knowledge concerning from the only true God. -- Matthew 24:36; 27:46; Mark 13:32; 15:34; Revelation 1:1,2.

Mark 2:8

Mark 2:6 - But there were some of the scribes sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts,
Mark 2:7 - "Why does this man speak blasphemies like that? Who can forgive sins but God alone?"
Mark 2:8 - Immediately Jesus, perceiving in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, said to them, "Why do you reason these things in your hearts?

Notice that Mark 2:8 does not say that Jesus knows everything about all things everywhere in the universe; the immediate attention was only to his knowing what the scribes were reasoning in their hearts. Thus, there is nothing here that shows that Jesus was omniscient, knowing absolutely everything in the universe. The idea has to be read into and added to what has been said. Whatever Jesus knew of what the scribes were reasoning in thier hearts had to be given to Jesus by the God and Father of Jesus (Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34; John 20:27; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12), even as such was given to Peter through the holy spirit concerning Ananias and Sapphira's attempted deception. -- Acts 5:1-9.

See also "General Comments" above. Luke 9:47

Luke 9:47

Jesus, perceiving the reasoning of their heart, took a little child, and set him by his side, -- Luke 9:27

Since the same principles that apply to Mark 2:8 also apply to this scripture, see post comments on Mark 2:8. John 2:25

John 2:25

John 2:23 - Now when he was in Jerusalem at the Passover, during the feast, many believed in his name, observing his signs which he did.
John 2:24 - But Jesus didn't trust himself to them, because he knew all people,
John 2:25 -and because he didn't need for anyone to testify concerning man; for he himself knew what was in man.

Again, there is nothing in these scriptures about Jesus' knowing everything the Father knows. What it does say is that he knew all people, but what does this mean?

The Greek word for "know" here is "ginosko". It is used in a variety of ways. In this context it means that Jesus understood that he could not trust the many in Jerusalem that believed in him. He knew that in a few years they would crucify him. It's similar to saying he understood human nature. The thought here is not that he individually knew every man.

Nevertheless, having the power also of discerning of spirits (1 Corinthians 12:10), he did not need any man should testify of them, for he knew what was in them. Jesus, with the power of the holy spirit could perceive things that the normal man could not . Peter, for example, knew that Ananias had lied about his offering, but that did not make Peter God. -- Acts 5:3.

Additionally, at some point God gave to Jesus the ability to judge the heart, for all judgment has been given to the Son. -- Isaiah 11:1-4; 42:1; John 5:22,23,27-30; Acts 17:31

The judgment upon man was already given when God condemned Adam, and resulting perversions of character has been ever since, and Jesus knew this. -- Romans 1:18-2:2; 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22.

Even if he had knowlege of every person on earth, this would not mean that Jesus is Yahweh, possessing all the knowledge that Yahweh has. One has to add to what Jesus says in order to make his words appear to mean that he is omniscient, knowing absolutely everything in the universe.

See also "General Comments" above.

John4:18

for you have had five husbands; and he whom you now have is not your husband. This you have said truly.

It should be apparent that there is nothing here that gives us any reason to believe that Jesus was omniscient. What it does offer proof of is that God was speaking through Jesus, even as he spoke through the prophets of old, and the Samaritan woman to whom Jesus spoke thus recognized Jesus as a prophet. (Hebrews 1:1,2; John 4:19) By means of God's spirit, the prophets of old told of things that they would not ordinarily know about. Of instance, Yahweh sent Nathan to David with knowledge of David's sin. (2 Samuel 12:1-14) This does not mean that Nathan was omniscient, having knowledge of all things in the entire universe. Likewise, Yahweh sent Jesus and has given Jesus knowledge of what to speak. (Deuteronomy 18:18; John 4:25; 8:28 12:49,50 15:15) This does not mean that Jesus is omniscient.

See also "General Comments" above.

John 6:64

Not yet ready

John 16:30

"Now we know that you know all things, and don't need for anyone to question you. By this we believe that you came forth from God."

A word-for-word interlinear of the Westcott & Hort text:

nun oidamen hoti oidas panta kai ou
NOW WE HAVE KNOWN THAT YOU HAVE KNOWN ALL AND NOT
3568 3569 1492_5 3754 1492_5 3956 2532 3756
chreian echeis hina tis se erwta en
NEED YOU ARE HAVING IN ORDER THAT ANYONE YOU MAY QUESTION; IN
5532 2192 2443 5100 4771_3 2065 1722
toutw pisteuomen hoti apo theou exeelthes
THIS WE ARE BELIEVING THAT FROM GOD YOU CAME OUT.
3778_6 4100 3754 0575 2316 1831

The disciples recognized Jesus as being, not God Almighty, but rather from God, as stated in the same verse. If the disciples meant to say that Jesus had the nature of God Almighty in knowing all things, why would they in the same sentence say that they knew he was from God because of the knowledge he had? The reasonable conclusion would be that they knew that he had received his knowledge from God who sent him, even as the scriptures and Jesus himself stated many times. -- Deuteronomy 18:15,18; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.

Of course, many modernists would like to break the scripture apart and make it appear that only his human nature is meant as being "from" God, and that the disciples actually were saying that they knew he was God Almighty in stating that Jesus knew all things, which of course, just doesn't in reality fit the context at all. But this is but one the cases where many trinitarian revisionists wish to read the scripture out of context, and add to it the extra-Biblical philosophy that Jesus had two natures (supposedly being both fully God Almighty and fully man) while on earth, to make it appear to be in harmony with their doctrines.

The Greek word panta (a variation of the Greek word, pas - Strong's #3956), translated "all" in John 16:30, is always used relative to the context of which it is being used. (Many translators add qualifying nouns to the word, as the word "things" is added by most translators here.*) Thus the apostles are not saying that Jesus was God Almighty, having all knowledge of absolutely everything there is, but rather that Jesus knew all the things he had spoken of, for he had received this knowledge from and came forth from his Father, Yahweh. In other words, he knew what he was talking about, knowing from what source he had received it.

------------
*Some examples of qualifying nouns being added to the Greek word pas in the translation of the KJV: Matthew 1:23; 10:1; 12:31; Luke 11:42; Acts 10:12 - "manner of"; Matthew 24:6 - "these things"; Mark 1:37; 13:13; Luke 21:17; John 1:7; 2:24; 5:23; 11:48; 12:32; 13:35; Acts 1:24; 2:45; 4:21; 19:19; 21:28 - "men"; Mark 4:11 - "things"; Mark 12:44 - "they"; Luke 1:66; 9:23 - "them"; Luke 13:27 - "ye"; John 15:2(2nd) - "branch"; Acts 9:32 - "quarters"
See also:
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=3956
http://www.menfak.no/bibelprog/vines?word=¯t0000085

We find a similar usage in 2 Corinthians 6:10:

"as sorrowful, yet always rejoicing; as poor, yet making many rich; as having nothing, and yet possessing all things."

Taken out of context, and applying the same kind reasoning many apply to John 16:30, one could make an argument that Paul is telling the Corinthians that they are possessing absolutely everything that exists in the whole universe, and thus they must be God Almighty.

Another similar passage is found in Jude 5.

Jude 5

hupomneesai de humas boulomai eidotas
TO REMIND BUT YOU I AM WISHING, HAVING KNOWN
5279 1161 4771_7 1014 1492_5
hapax panta hoti kurios laon ek gees
ONCE FOR ALL ALL, THAT LORD PEOPLE OUT OF EARTH
0530 3956 3754 2962 2992 1537 1093
aiguptou swsas to deuteron tous mee
OF EGYPT HAVING SAVED THE SECOND THE NOT
0125 4982 3588 1208 3588 3361
pisteusantas apwlesen
HAVING BELIEVED HE DESTROYED,
4100 0622

Of course, Jude is not saying that believers have once for all come to know absolutely everything there is to know about everything in the universe, but panta is used relative to what is being spoken of, as in John 16:30.

In conclusion, then, we find that there is nothing in John 16:30 that says that Jesus is Yahweh, or that Jesus has all the sentiency of Yahweh; instead we find that the disciples tell us that the knowledge that Jesus had been giving them is to them proof that he came from God (not that he was God.)

See also "General Comments" above.

John 21:17

Not yet ready

Colossians 2:3

Not yet ready

Last update: November, 2004























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