Mark 2:8
Mark 2:6 - But there were some of the scribes sitting there, and reasoning in their hearts,
Mark 2:7 - "Why does this man speak blasphemies like that? Who can forgive sins but God alone?"
Mark 2:8 - Immediately Jesus, perceiving in his spirit that they so reasoned within themselves, said to them, "Why do you reason these things in your hearts?
Notice that Mark 2:8 does not say that Jesus knows everything about all things everywhere in the universe; the immediate attention was only to his knowing what the scribes were reasoning in their hearts. Thus, there is nothing here that shows that Jesus was omniscient, knowing absolutely everything in the universe. The idea has to be read into and added to what has been said. Whatever Jesus knew of what the scribes were reasoning in thier hearts had to be given to Jesus by the God and Father of Jesus (Matthew 27:46; Mark 15:34; John 20:27; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Ephesians 1:3,17; Hebrews 1:9; 1 Peter 1:3; Revelation 2:7; 3:2,12), even as such was given to Peter through the holy spirit concerning Ananias and Sapphira's attempted deception. -- Acts 5:1-9.
See also "General Comments" above.
Luke 9:47
Luke 9:47
Jesus, perceiving the reasoning of their heart, took a little child, and set him by his side, -- Luke 9:27
Since the same principles that apply to Mark 2:8 also apply to this scripture, see post comments on Mark 2:8.
John 2:25
John 2:25
John 2:23 - Now when he was in Jerusalem at the Passover, during the feast, many
believed in his name, observing his signs which he did.
John 2:24 - But Jesus didn't
trust himself to them, because he knew all people,
John 2:25 -and because he didn't
need for anyone to testify concerning man; for he himself knew what was in
man.
Again, there is nothing in these scriptures about Jesus' knowing everything
the Father knows. What it does say is that he knew all people, but what does
this mean?
The Greek word for "know" here is "ginosko". It is used in a variety of
ways. In this context it means that Jesus understood that he could not trust
the many in Jerusalem that believed in him. He knew that in a few years they
would crucify him. It's similar to saying he understood human nature. The
thought here is not that he individually knew every man.
Nevertheless, having the power also of discerning of spirits (1 Corinthians
12:10), he did not need any man should testify of them, for he knew what was
in them. Jesus, with the power of the holy spirit could perceive things that
the normal man could not . Peter, for example, knew that Ananias had lied
about his offering, but that did not make Peter God. -- Acts 5:3.
Additionally, at some point God gave to Jesus the ability to judge the
heart, for all judgment has been given to the Son. -- Isaiah 11:1-4; 42:1;
John 5:22,23,27-30; Acts 17:31
The judgment upon man was already given when God condemned Adam, and
resulting perversions of character has been ever since, and Jesus knew
this. -- Romans 1:18-2:2; 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22.
Even if he had knowlege of every person on earth, this would not mean that
Jesus is Yahweh, possessing all the knowledge that Yahweh has. One has to add to what Jesus says in order to make his words appear to mean that he is omniscient, knowing absolutely everything in the universe.
See also "General Comments" above.
John4:18
for you have had five husbands; and he whom you now have is not your husband. This you have said truly.
It should be apparent that there is nothing here that gives us any reason to believe that Jesus was omniscient. What it does offer proof of is that God was speaking through Jesus, even as he spoke through the prophets of old, and the Samaritan woman to whom Jesus spoke thus recognized Jesus as a prophet. (Hebrews 1:1,2; John 4:19) By means of God's spirit, the prophets of old told of things that they would not ordinarily know about. Of instance, Yahweh sent Nathan to David with knowledge of David's sin. (2 Samuel 12:1-14) This does not mean that Nathan was omniscient, having knowledge of all things in the entire universe. Likewise, Yahweh sent Jesus and has given Jesus knowledge of what to speak. (Deuteronomy 18:18; John 4:25; 8:28 12:49,50 15:15) This does not mean that Jesus is omniscient.
See also "General Comments" above.
John 6:64
Not yet ready
John 16:30
"Now we know that you know all things, and don't need for anyone to question you. By this we believe that you came forth from God."
A word-for-word interlinear of the Westcott & Hort text:
nun oidamen hoti oidas panta kai ou
NOW WE HAVE KNOWN THAT YOU HAVE KNOWN ALL AND NOT
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chreian echeis hina tis se erwta en
NEED YOU ARE HAVING IN ORDER THAT ANYONE YOU MAY QUESTION; IN
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toutw pisteuomen hoti apo theou exeelthes
THIS WE ARE BELIEVING THAT FROM GOD YOU CAME OUT.
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The disciples recognized Jesus as being, not God Almighty, but
rather from God, as stated in the same verse. If the disciples meant to
say that Jesus had the nature of God Almighty in knowing all things, why
would they in the same sentence say that they knew he was from God because
of the knowledge he had? The reasonable conclusion would be that they knew that he had received his knowledge from God who sent him, even as the scriptures and Jesus himself stated many times. -- Deuteronomy 18:15,18; Matthew 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; John 3:2,17; 5:19,43; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; Hebrews 1:1,2; Revelation 1:1.
Of course, many modernists would like to break the scripture apart and make it appear that only his human nature is meant as being "from" God, and that the disciples actually were saying that they knew he was God Almighty in stating that Jesus knew all things, which of course, just doesn't in reality fit the context at all. But
this is but one the cases where many trinitarian revisionists wish to read the scripture out of context, and add to it the extra-Biblical philosophy that Jesus had two natures (supposedly being both fully God Almighty and fully man) while on earth, to make it appear to be in harmony with their doctrines.
The Greek word panta (a variation of the Greek word, pas - Strong's #3956), translated "all" in John 16:30, is always used relative to the context of which it is being used. (Many translators add qualifying nouns to the word, as the word "things" is added by most translators here.*) Thus the apostles are not saying that Jesus was God Almighty, having all knowledge of absolutely everything there is, but rather that Jesus knew all the things he had spoken of, for he had received this knowledge from and came forth from his Father, Yahweh. In other words, he knew what he was talking about, knowing from what source he had received it.
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*Some examples of qualifying nouns being added to the Greek word pas in the translation of the KJV: Matthew 1:23; 10:1; 12:31; Luke 11:42; Acts 10:12 - "manner of"; Matthew 24:6 - "these things"; Mark 1:37; 13:13; Luke 21:17; John 1:7; 2:24; 5:23; 11:48; 12:32; 13:35; Acts 1:24; 2:45; 4:21; 19:19; 21:28 - "men"; Mark 4:11 - "things"; Mark 12:44 - "they"; Luke 1:66; 9:23 - "them"; Luke 13:27 - "ye"; John 15:2(2nd) - "branch"; Acts 9:32 - "quarters"
See also:
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Greek/grk.cgi?number=3956
http://www.menfak.no/bibelprog/vines?word=¯t0000085
We find a similar usage in 2 Corinthians 6:10:
"as sorrowful, yet always rejoicing; as poor, yet making many rich; as having nothing, and yet possessing all things."
Taken out of context, and applying the same kind reasoning many apply to John 16:30, one could make an argument that Paul is telling the Corinthians that they are possessing absolutely everything that exists in the whole universe, and thus they must be God Almighty.
Another similar passage is found in Jude 5.
Jude 5
hupomneesai de humas boulomai eidotas
TO REMIND BUT YOU I AM WISHING, HAVING KNOWN
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hapax panta hoti kurios laon ek gees
ONCE FOR ALL ALL, THAT LORD PEOPLE OUT OF EARTH
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aiguptou swsas to deuteron tous mee
OF EGYPT HAVING SAVED THE SECOND THE NOT
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pisteusantas apwlesen
HAVING BELIEVED HE DESTROYED,
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