Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.

King James Version

To them belong the patriarchs, and from them, according to the flesh, comes the Messiah. May he who is God over all be blessed forever. Amen.

New Revised Standard Version -- Footnote rendering.

To them belong the patriarchs, and of their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ. God who is over all be blessed for ever. Amen.

Revised Standard Version

Whose are the fathers, and of whom is the Christ—according to the flesh—he who is over all, God, blessed unto the ages. Amen.

The Emphasized Bible translation

Theirs are the patriarchs, and from them is traced the human ancestry of Christ, who is God over all, forever praised! [1] Amen. -- Footnote: Or Christ, who is over all. God be forever praised! Or Christ. God who is over all be forever praised!

New International Version.

hwn hoi pateres kai ex hwn ho christos to
OF WHOM THE FATHERS, AND OUT OF WHOM THE CHRIST THE (THING)
3739 3588 3962 2532 1537 3739 3588 5547 3588
kata sarka ho wn epi pantwn theos
ACCORDING TO FLESH, THE (ONE) BEING UPON ALL (THINGS), GOD
2596 4561 3588 1511_1 1909 3956 2316
eulogeetos eis tous aiwnas ameen
BLESSED (ONE) INTO THE AGES; AMEN.
2128 1519 3588 0165 0281

Westcott & Hort Interlinear
(as obtained from "The Bible Student's Library" CD-ROM)

One of the proof texts that trinitarians and others use as a proof that Jesus is God Almighty is Romans 9:5. This is the way it reads in the KJV: "Of whom is Christ as concerning the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen." We notice above that the NIV gives two alternative translations as a footnote; also the RSV as well as the NRSV do not translate it as the KJV. According to these translations it is not Christ who in this verse is spoken of as over all; rather it is "God". This agrees with Jesus' statement in John 10:29: "My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all." And Jesus identifies his Father as the "only true God." -- John 17:1,3.

The Greek sentence structure [See Appendix Two] does not lead us to a definite understanding of this verse, so we need to consider the contextual evidence and other scriptures speaking about Christ and speaking about God for an understanding of this scripture. The following things favor a rendering similar to the Revised Standard Version and the footnote of the NIV:

Such a statement of praise to the God of Israel is in place here in view of the great favors, as the connection shows, that the apostle Paul enumerates as having been given to his people, culminating in Christ's advent, which is a prophecy of the return of the special favor to Israel, because of those that they had, as enumerated in Romans 9:4,5. While the apostle Paul almost never in his writings makes a similar statement of praise to Christ, he frequently does to the Father. (Romans 1:25; 11:36; 16:27; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 11:31; Galatians 1:4,5; Ephesians 1:3; 3:20,21; Philippians 4:20; also see 1 Peter 5:11 and see Appendix One below.) The only other one in Paul's writings is 2 Timothy 4:18, see Appendix Six.

Additionally, who did Jesus say is "greater than all", but the only true God, his God and Father? (John 10:29; 17:1,3) Even in the "all things" that are given to Jesus by the only true God, the only true God is excepted, indicating his power and glory as being greater than all, including greater than that of Jesus. -- 1 Corinthians 15:27.

It is generally believed by trinitarians and some others that *ho on* (or as it appears in the above interlinear: *ho wn*) acts as a relative pronoun relating back to Jesus. As we have shown, some trinitarian translators have rendered the verse in such a way as to show that it is referring to God, thus to try to seek support from this scripture for the trinity doctrine, or the belief that Jesus is Yahweh, is very weak. We should remember that the word "Christ" means "Anointed One". The One who anointed Jesus is Yahweh. As relating to "who is" the phrase *ho on* would be properly rendered "he who is" as relating to the one who anointed Jesus, the One who is over Jesus the Anointed One, that is, God.

The added phrase "he who is over all, God, be blessed forever", thus can be seen to be Paul's addition to what had been stated in Romans 8:39: "neither the world above nor the world below -there is nothing in all creation that will ever be able to separate us from the love of God which is ours through Christ Jesus our Lord." (Today's English Version) This verse certainly shows that a distinction between "God" and "Christ Jesus", and therefore the distinction would be carried on into the context of Romans 9:5, thus the addition of the phrase (or sentence, depending on which way one looks at it): "he who is over all, God, be blessed forever."

Additionally, to conclude that this phrase is stating that Jesus is God Almighty makes it contradict the universal teaching of the only true Supreme Being is the Father, who, as God Almighty alone, is such. (Genesis 17:1; Deuteronomy 3:24; Isaiah 43:13; Revelation 1:8; John 17:1,3; 1 Corinthians 8:6; 15:27,28) Thus, from this scriptural evidence alone (and there is much more which would support the same truths: Click Here) we conclude that the correct understanding of this verse is the one which recognizes the statement of praise as relating back to Paul's comments about God, then *pantwn* (Strong's #3956) would refer to the "all things" relative to such as have been subjected to Christ by the One who is over Jesus, Yahweh. -- Psalm 2:8; Daniel 7:13,14; Matthew 11:27; 28:18; Luke 1:32 (Compare Isaiah 9:6,7); John 3:35; 5:26,27; 13:3; 17:22; 1 Corinthians 15:27,28. See also our document:
Jesus is Not Yahweh

Thus even if we suppose that Paul is applying this statement to Jesus as the *theos* -- one of power -- who is over all -- that is, "all" things that have subjected to him by Yahweh -- this does not mean that Jesus is the same being as Yahweh who sent him, who spoke to him, who anointed him and made all things subject to him. We have noted elsewhere) that the term *theos*, as applied to Jesus, does not necessarily mean that he is Yahweh, the One who spoke to him and anointed him. -- Psalm 2:7,8; 45:7 (See Hebrews 1:9); Isaiah 61:1 (See Luke 4:18-21).

One should not think that we are disputing the superiority of Jesus over all creation as that superiority has been given to him by Yahweh, nor that we are denying his deity*, but we should remember that it is Yahweh -- the only true God (Supreme Power, the source of all power, John 17:1,3)-- that has made Jesus preeminent over all these things (Isaiah 61:1-4; Matthew 28:18; John 3:34,35; 5:22,23; Ephesians 1:20-22; Philippians 2:9,10), with the recognition that this preeminence also excludes Yahweh who is over Jesus. -- John 14:28; 1 Corinthians 3:23; 11:3; 15:27.
==========
We recognize the term "deity" from Hebraic usage, based on the meaning and usage of the Hebrew words from which theos (and its variations) is translated from, that is, the Hebrew words EL and ELOHIM. These words carry the basic meaning of "strength, power, might." With this in mind, scripturally, the nature of deity pertains to "strength, power and might" beyond what is normal. As applied to Yahweh, it designates him as the only Might, the only true Power in the universe, for he is the sole source of all power and might, and thus possesses the nature of God internally without any external source needed. Thus when Yahweh, the only true EL, provided power or might to Moses, Yahweh himself said he had made him ELOHIM [powerful] to Pharaoh. (Exodus 7:1) The judges of Israel, to whom Yahweh had given special power and authority, are referred to as ELOHIM in Exodus 21:6; 22:8,9,28. The angels, to whom Yahweh has given greater power than mankind, are also referred to as ELOHIM in Psalm 8:5 (see Hebrews 2:7). Also, when Jesus referred back to the use of elohim in Psalm 82:6 he used the plural of theos (theoi) and applied this word the sons of God to whom the Word of God came. (John 10:34,35) In none of these scriptures is deity applied in the sense of being equal to Yahweh, or being the Supreme Being.

Thus regardless as to which way one renders the verse, this verse does not mean that Jesus is Yahweh nor does it provide support for adding to the scriptures the philosophy of three persons in one God.

Appendix One

Romans 1:25 - Who exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed forever. Amen.

We have been criticized for using this scripture, since the Father is not mentioned. The context indicates that God is the Father of the one being referred to as sent by God -- his Son -- in verses 1-9, thus "God" does refer to the Father of Jesus. Of course, Jesus identifies the one who sent him as the "only true God" in John 17:1,3. One trinitarian states concerning this verse: "On the contrary, it is speaking of praise for the Creator of the creatures which Paul tells us in another letter is none other than Christ (Col. 1:16,17)." As we have shown elsewhere, Jesus himself speaks not of himself as the Creator, but of the only true God as the Creator. See our documents:
Did Jesus Have a Beginning?
Colossians 1:16 and the Creator

Romans 11:36 - For of [Greek ek, out of] him, and through [Greek di] him, and to him, are all things. To him be the glory for ever! Amen.

This scripture is claimed by some to apply to Jesus, with the argument that Jesus is the Creator, the Almighty God. Nevertheless, the context shows that it is Yahweh who is being spoken of, not Jesus. Verse 2 (Romans 11:2) shows that this is referring to the God of Israel, whom Jesus spoke of as his Father. (Exodus 3:6,15,16; Matthew 22:32; Mark 12:26; Luke 20:37; John 8:54) Verse 34 (Romans 11:34) is an indirect quote from Isaiah 40:13, which reads: "Who has directed the Spirit of Yahweh, or being his counselor has taught him?" All through Romans "God" is spoken of as both the Father of Jesus, and also as the God of Israel.

Taken in isolation, and with the rendering of the Greek words ta panta as "all things", and in comparing Colossians 1:16, one could think that Paul is saying that this is speaking of creation, but as we have pointed out many times, "ta panta" always refers to what is being spoken of in context. Of course, God is the source of all creation, but specifically Paul here attributes God as the source and provider of wisdom, knowledge and unsearchable judgments, as shown in the context by verses 33-36, although Paul is probably referring to all that is implied in these things, that is, God's entire plan of salvation from beginning to end, which results will be to the glory of God. The application of these things are from God, through God to Jesus now and the church reckonedly now, and actually in the age to come, and to the world after the glorification of the church, and all of this is to God, to his glory.

It is claimed that the same wording is used of Jesus in Colossians 1:16,17, where is it applied to Jesus. There we read that "all things have been created through him, and to him." In the context Colossians 1:16,17 we find that both God, Jesus and the church are being spoken in relationship to each other. The church is to increase in knowledge of God, be strengthened with all power, giving thanks to the Father, who made them fit to be partakers of the inheritance of the saints in light, who delivered them out of darkness into the Kingdom of the Son. (Verses 10-13) Then Paul gives attention to Jesus, and describes him as the image of the invisible God (spoken of in verses 10-13). So we have a relationship shown in these verses that indicates that God, in Jesus, created all the things being spoken of [ta panta], so all these things have been created through him, and to him. Thus this scripture is speaking of these relationships, and in that of creation, and is not speaking of the same thing as recorded in Romans 11:36, where God is spoken of, and in in the context of his wisdom, knowledge and judgments. See also our studies on:
Romans 10:13 and The Trinity/Oneness Doctrines
Did Jesus Have a Beginning?
Colossians 1:16 and the Creator

Romans 16:27 - To the only wise God, through Jesus Christ, to whom be the glory forever! Amen

Here we have a clear distinction between the only wise God, and Jesus Christ. The glory is being given to the only wise God, through Jesus Christ. It should be apparent that even though in the Greek "to whom" is closest to the name "Jesus Christ", that it is "God" that is the antecendent of the pronoun "whom".

2 Corinthians 1:3 - Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies and God of all comfort.

This scripture expresses a distinction between "the God and Father" from "our Lord Jesus Christ". It should be apparent that the one being spoken of "blessed" is not Jesus, but the Father of Jesus. It should also be apparent that "the Father of mercies", although this phrase follows the name of Jesus Christ, it is not referring to Jesus Christ, but rather back to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. Nevertheless, one trinitarian states: "The question is, does it refer to the person of the Father? And if so, to Him only?" The question is vague, to say the least. Of course, there is no reason at all to think that it is being addressed to any other than the God and Father of our Lord Jesus. The argument is put forth that in verse 2 God is called "out Father" and in verse 3 he is identified as the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. Then it is argued that both of these titles could imply equally the Father and the Son, because Jesus is called "everlasting father" (Isaiah 9:6) and supposedly functions toward the church as father. Isaiah 53:10; John 21:5 and Hebrews 2:13 are supplied to support the claim that Jesus is "our Father", that is, that he is the Father of the church. From this the thought is read into several scritpures that "our Father" refers to both the Father of Jesus and to Jesus. There are at least two ways that Jesus could be referred to as the Father of the saints, but in no way does this make him the Almighty God, who is his Father. The saints are first reckoned on the plane of the human being made alive by partaking of the New Covenant and its benefits of the age to come. So, at least initially they could be recognized as children of Jesus on the plane of the restoration of the world of mankind, but in this age they are quickly counted as children of God for the purpose of becoming the seed of Abraham as heirs of God. (Romans 8:14,17; 9:8; Galatians 3:26,29;1 Corinthians 15:21,22) Also, the disciples could be recognized as Jesus' children in that they have been given to him by the Father. (John 6:39; 10:29; 17:6; Hebrews 2:13) Thus, in John 21:5, Jesus states to his disciples: "Children, have you anything to eat?" Jesus does not state that the disciples are his children, but he does call them "children" even as the apostles Paul and John does likewise (2 Corinthians 6:13; Galatians 4:19; 1 John 2:1,12,13,18,28; 3:1,2,7; 3 John 1:4), as children of God who have been placed under their care. None of this makes either Jesus nor the apostles into God Almighty, who is the our Father and the Father of Jesus.

2 Corinthians 11:31 - The God and Father of the Lord Jesus Christ, he who is blessed forevermore, knows that I don't lie.

The Greek sentence structure is similar to Romans 9:5, but it should be apparent that it is referring to the God and Father of the Lord Jesus, and not Jesus, who is being spoken of as blessed forever, even though in the Greek ho on is closer to the name "Jesus" than it is to "God and Father". See also comments on 2 Corinthians 1:3.

Galatians 1:4,5 -- who gave himself for our sins, that he might deliver us out of this present evil age, according to the will of our God and Father -- to whom be the glory forever and ever. Amen

Again, this should be apparent that the glory forever and ever is being ascribed to "our God and Father." Nevertheless, some use similar arguments concerning this verse as with 2 Corinthians 1:3, which see above.

One trinitarian states concerning this verse: "In verse 3 we have a specific reference to the person of the Father, but that doesn't negate what the rest of Scripture says about the two natures of Christ. Namely, what v. 3 states about the salvation grace that comes equally from the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. We also must not overlook the work of the Holy Spirit who applies that to us (Titus 3:5), making the work of salvation the work of God Triune." Galatians 1:3 reads: "Grace to you and peace from God the Father, and our Lord Jesus Christ." There is nothing in this that would make the persons of the Father and Jesus one God. Such an idea has to be read into what Paul said. Strictly speaking, the verse is not about salvation, but is a prayerful greeting for favor and peace from God and Jesus to be with the church in Galatia.

Ephesians 1:3 - Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord, Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ.

There can be no mistake in this verse that Paul shows that God is the Father, and God is the God of our Lord Jesus. For any straight-forward scriptural reasoning, this should be conclusive evidence that Jesus is not God, since Jesus obviously worships Yahweh, the true God is Israel, as his God. Since Jesus has this God who is over him, then Jesus is not the God who is his God. This distinction is made again in Ephesians 1:17.-- See also John 17:1,3; 20:17; Revelation 3:12.

The inclusion of "in Christ" in the final phrase makes it evident that the this phrase describing one who has blessed us with all spiritual blessings is speaking of the God and Father, and not Jesus, even though the name Jesus immediately precedes the phrase.

Ephesians 3:20,21 - Now to him who is able to do exceedingly abundantly above all that we ask or think, according to the power that works in us, to him be the glory in the assembly and in Christ Jesus to all generations forever and ever. Amen.

One trinitarian remarks concerning out inclusion of this verse: "Ephesians 3:20, 21 makes no direct claim even to God, and could also certainly equally be referring to Christ who gives us power (John 1:12), and the Holy Ghost who sanctifies us by His power. (Titus 3:5, Romans 15:13)" It is certainly not true that Ephesians 3:20,21 makes no direct claim to God, for Paul is speaking of the "Father of our Lord, Jesus Christ". (Ephesians 3:14) It is true that God Almighty has given to Jesus power which he imparts to us, thus God works in Christ to provide this power. Titus 3:5 refers to the use of God's personal power, his holy spirit to produce the new birth. Romans 15:13 refers to our being filled with all joy and peace in believing, that we may abound in the hope by means of the power of God's holy spirit.

Returning to Ephesians 3:20,21, we read that "to him [God] be the glory in [by means of, through] the assembly and in [by means of, through] Christ Jesus". Please note the one to whom the glory is being given is distinguished both from the church and Christ Jesus, thus it is very clear that "to him" is not speaking of either Jesus Christ even as it is not speaking of the church.

Philippians 4:20 - Now to our God and Father be the glory forever and ever. Amen.

This is straighforward, and should have no criticism that it applies to God; Jesus is not even mentioned. However, some have implied that "God and Father" here represents their entire idea of the Godhead, thus claiming that it includes the three persons of Father, Son and the Holy Spirit. Of course, such a notion has to be read into what Paul says. In context, we find that God is used in contrast with Jesus in verses 7 and 19.

1 Peter 5:11 - After you have suffered for a little while, the God of all grace, who called you to His eternal glory in Christ, will Himself perfect, confirm, strengthen and establish you. To Him be dominion forever and ever. Amen.

The Textus Receptus has the Greek word "doxa" here in verse 11, but earlier manuscripts do not have it.

The word *doxa* does appear in verse 10 referring to the saints being called to God's eternal glory (doxa) in Christ. While the word "him" is closest here to the word "Christ", it is general accepted that the antecedent of "him" is "God", not Christ.

Appendix Two

The following is a quote from G. H. Boobyer in the article, "Jesus as 'THEOS' in the New Testament', Bulletin of John Ryllands Library 50 (1967-68), page 253, as it is quoted in The Role of Theology and Bias in Bible Translation, page 222 (We have added the common manner of scriptural references in brackets):

• First there is the rarity of New Testament references to Jesus as "God" ("theos"). Some nine or ten passages occur in which Jesus is, or might be, alluded to as "God" ("theos"). Usually cited are John i.1 [John 1:1]; xx.28 [John 20:28]; Romans ix.5 [Romans 9:5]; 2 Thessalonians i.12 [2 Thessalonians 1:12; 1 Timothy iii.16 [1 Timothy 3:16]; Titus ii.13 [Titus 2:13]; Hebrews i.8f [Hebrews 1:8f]; 2 Peter i.1 [2 Peter 1:1]; and 1 John v. 20. Two or three of these, however, are highly dubious, and of the remainder, vary degrees of testual or exegetical uncertainty attach to all save one, which is Thomas' adoring acclaim of the risen Jesus in John xx.28 [John 20:28] as "My Lord and my God."

However, even John 20:28 has also been questioned due to the unusual Greek structure that Thomas used. See our document:
John 20:28 - My Lord and My God: Why is Jesus called Theos?

Appendix Three

We have been given a quote from the Expositer's Bible Commentary (Everett F. Harrison. "Romans" in The Expositor's Bible Commentary. Vol. 10. Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 1976, p.103-4) in reference to Romans 9:5, which is supposed to give evidence in support of the trinity doctrine. Below we presents some remarks cocerning what is said there.

This commentary states concering Romans 9:5 (all quotes given from the commentary are indented with a dot):

• Several considerations favor the traditional wording, which refers "God' to Christ:
  
  1) Christ's relationship to Israel on the human side has been stated in such a way as to call for a complementary statement on the divine side. This is provided by the usual translation but not by the other rendering.

This statement would only make sense to one who believes that Jesus was God Almighty incarnate. At most, this idea would have be read into what Paul is saying. Paul is continuing from what he was speaking about in the 8th chapter, where he had stated: "What then will we say about these things? If God is for us, who can be against us? He who didn't spare his own Son, but delivered him up for us all, how would he not also with him freely give us all things? Who could bring a charge against God's elect? It is God who justifies. Who is he who condemns? It is Christ who died, yes rather, who was raised from the dead, who is at the right hand of God, who also makes intercession for us. Who shall separate us from the love of Christ? Could oppression, or anguish, or persecution, or famine, or nakedness, or peril, or sword? Even as it is written, 'For your sake we are killed all day long. We were accounted as sheep for the slaughter.' No, in all these things, we are more than conquerors through him who loved us. For I am persuaded, that neither death, nor life, nor angels, nor principalities, nor things present, nor things to come, nor powers, nor height, nor depth, nor any other creature, will be able to separate us from the love of God, which is in Christ Jesus our Lord." (Romans 8:31-39) He is certainly drawing a distinction between God and Christ. Are we to think that he suddenly changes this distinction in Romans 9:5? Actually, he simply relates back to what he had been writing in chapter 8 in veneration of God, who is over all.

• >2) 'Who' can properly be coupled only with the foregoing subject (Christ). If another subject (God) is being introduced, there is no reason at all for the 'who.'

The word "doxology" is not in the Bible, so we will not get into this terminology. However, a similar statement is used in Romans 1:25. Nevertheless, as we have shown, even if Paul intended this statement of praise in Romans 9:5 for Jesus, this still would not make Jesus into God Almighty, for the word theos can be legitimately used of others to whom God had exalted in power and honor.

• 4) A doxology to God would be singularly out of place in a passage marked by sorrow over Israel's failure to recognize in Christ her crowning spiritual blessing.

The emphasis of Romans 9:4 is not sorrow over Israel's failure, but the privileges given to Israel. All of the emphasis from Romans 8 and 9 are relating to the God os Israel. True, Paul does relate how that "they are not all Israel, that are of Israel." (Romans 9:6) He relates how Israel after the flesh had missed the calling to be God's sons in the Gospel Age, but then he shows that their hardening of heart is only temporary. (Romans 11:25,26) "For God has shut up all to disobedience, that he might have mercy upon all." (Romans 11:32) It is the overall picture that Paul is presenting of blessings both for the church and for Israel that Paul is excited about so as to exclaim veneration to God who is over all these things. See:
A Mystery Revealed - Romans 11:25
http://www.heraldmag.org/olb/contents/doctrine/nbnewsletters.htm

• 5) The definitive article, 'the,' is not linked in the text with 'God.' But with the foregoing words (literally, 'the one being over all'), so Paul is not trying to displace God with Christ, but is doing what John does in saying that then Word was God (John 1:1), that is, has the rank of God. In any case, this is really implied in recognizing him as 'over all'

The emphasis here is on the One who is "over all" pertaining to things given to Israel as well as the church, which was given by Yahweh the Father. Christ is only mentioned as one of series of blessings given to the nation of Israel. Jesus was sent to Israel by Yahweh. Therefore, it is to Yahweh that an exclamation of veneration is given.

As we have said, if Jesus is being spoken of as THEOS here, it would be in a manner similar to the way Jesus quoted the reference to the sons of God to whom the Word of God came. (John 10:34,35; Luke 8:21; Acts 8:14; Galatians 3:26; Hebrews 6:5) And it is God Almighty who subjected all things to Jesus, with the exception of God Almighty. -- 1 Corinthians 15:27; Daniel 7:14; Matthew 11:27; 28:18 John 3:35; 13:3 Ephesians 1:20; Philippians 2:9-11; 1 Peter 3:22.

Appendix Four

Doxology
In general this word means a short verse praising God and beginning, as a rule, with the Greek word Doxa. The custom of ending a rite or a hymn with such a formula comes from the Synagogue (cf. the Prayer of Manasses: tibiest gloria in sæcula sæculorum. Amen). St. Paul uses doxologies constantly (Rom., xi, 36; Gal., i, 5; Eph., iii, 21; etc.). The earliest examples are addressed to God the Father alone, or to Him through (dia) the Son (Rom., xvi, 27; Jude, 25; I Clem., xli; Mart. Polyc., xx; etc.) and in (en) or with (syn, meta) the Holy Ghost (Mart. Polyc., xiv, xxii, etc.)
From the Catholic Encyclopedia
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/05150a.htm

Main Entry: dox·ol·o·gy
Pronunciation: däk-'sä-l&-jE
Function: noun
Inflected Form(s): plural -gies
Etymology: Medieval Latin doxologia, from Late Greek, from Greek doxa
opinion, glory (from dokein to seem, seem good) + -logia -logy -- more at
DECENT
Date: 1649
: a usually liturgical expression of praise to God
http://www.m-w.com/cgi-bin/dictionary

The American Heritage® Dictionary of the English Language: Fourth
Edition.  2000.
      doxology
      SYLLABICATION: dox·ol·o·gy
      PRONUNCIATION:   dk-sl-j
      NOUN: Inflected forms: pl. dox·ol·o·gies
      An expression of praise to God, especially a short hymn sung as part
of a Christian worship service.
      ETYMOLOGY: Medieval Latin doxologia, from Greek doxologi, praise :
doxa, glory, honor (from dokein, to seem; see dek- in Appendix I)
+ -logi, -logy.
      OTHER FORMS: doxo·logi·cal (dks-lj-kl) -ADJECTIVE
      doxo·logi·cal·ly -ADVERB
http://www.bartleby.com/61/14/D0371400.html

The term "doxology" and its definition were not developed until a several centuries after the Bible was written, thus such a word is never used in the Bible. The definition of the word was also evidently determined by trinitarians with trinitarian terminology in mind. Thus defining the term "doxology" and then applying this definition to something written in the Bible is assuming that the writer wrote what he wrote with a definition in mind that he had never heard of, which is not likely.

The word *doxa*, however, is used quite often in the Bible, and does not always refer to praise of God.

"Amen" signifies "so be it", "it is true", "that which is true [faithful]", or "let it be true."

The Greek word "amen" is translated in the KJV as "verily" over 100 times. The Hebrew word "Amen" is mostly used relative to curses for disobedience, although it is also used respecting blessings. In the Bible the word "Amen" does not signify that the one being spoken of as receiving the praise or honor is God Almighty.
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/NewTestamentGreek/grk.cgi?number=281
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/NewTestamentGreek/grk.cgi?number=1391
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Lexicons/Hebrew/heb.cgi?number=543&version=kjv
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Dictionaries/BakersEvangelicalDictionary/bed.cgi?number=T29
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Dictionaries/SmithsBibleDictionary/smt.cgi?number=T261

For however many are the promises of God, in him [Jesus] is the "Yes." Therefore also through him [Jesus] is the "Amen," to the glory of God through us. -- 2 Corinthians 1:20

Appendix Five

Here we will discuss the other two scriptures that are generally claimed phrases of praise applied to Jesus, that is, 2 Timothy 4:18 and 2 Peter 3:18

2 Timothy 4:18 - And the Lord will deliver me from every evil work, and will save me to his heavenly kingdom; to whom be the glory forever and ever. Amen.

And the Lord shall free me from every evil work, and shall save [me] -- to his heavenly kingdom; to whom [is] the glory to the ages of the ages! Amen. -- Young's Literal Translation

Does "the Lord" and "his" here mean Jesus or is it a substitution for "Yahweh", as is often done in the extant NT manuscripts? If the "the Lord" refers to Yahweh, then the statement of praise is being given to Yahweh, not Jesus. What is the evidence?

In the first chapter, Paul refers to God as distinguished from Jesus in the following verses: 2 Timothy 1:1,2,3,6,7,8,9,; "the Lord" in 2 Timothy 1:16, 18, then, more than likely refers to Yahweh, of whom Paul has been speaking.

In chapter two, "the Lord" is used in 2 Timothy 2:7, but although Paul speaks of Jesus in the earlier verses of the chapter, he still could be referring to Yahweh in verses 7.

2 Timothy 2:14 reads: "Remind them of these things, charging them in the sight of the Lord, that they don't argue about words, to no profit, to the subverting of those who hear." Some older manuscripts read "theos" here instead of "Lord". Nevertheless, in verse 15 we find that it is speaking of God.

2 Timothy 2:19 has "the Lord" twice. In both instances, Paul appears to be referring to Yahweh.

• However God's firm foundation stands, having this seal, "The Lord knows those who are his," and, "Let every one who names the name of the Lord depart from unrighteousness."

The next verses to consider are 2 Timothy 2:22: "Flee from youthful lusts; but pursue righteousness, faith, love, and peace with those who call on the Lord out of a pure heart," and 2 Timothy 2:24:"The Lord's servant must not quarrel, but be gentle towards all, able to teach, patient...." Again, verse 25 mentions God, thus we have reason to believe that Paul is speaking in these instances of Yahweh.

In chapter three, Paul speaks "the Lord" in 2 Timothy 3:11: "persecutions, and sufferings; those things that happened to me at Antioch, at Iconium, at Lystra; those persecutions that I endured. Out of them all the Lord delivered me." In the next verse he speaks of living godly in Christ, and verse 15, he speaks of the salvation of faith, which is by means of Christ Jesus. Then he speaks of the scriptures inspired of God, and the man of God, thus indicating that Paul is keeping God in the forefront, giving evidence that "the Lord" in verse 3:11 is in reference to Yahweh.

In chapter four, while the Textus Receptus has "the Lord Jesus Christ", most translations do not have "the Lord", as it evidently was added to later manuscripts. Thus we read in Darby's translation: "I testify before God and Christ Jesus, who is about to judge living and dead, and by his appearing and his kingdom." The point that trinitarians may make here, however, is that it is Jesus who will do the judging, so that the term "the Lord, the righteous judge" in verse 8 may appear to apply to Jesus, not Yahweh. This could be, but does this mean that "the Lord" in verses 14,17,18, and 22 must also be referring to Jesus? We also need to remember that the scriptures do speak of Yahweh as coming to judge, but he does the judging through his appointed agent, Jesus. (Malachi 3:1-6; Psalm 96:13; Micah 1:3; Revelaton 1:1; 22:6. Psalm 96:98; 110:1; Matthew 22:43-45; 26:64; Mark 12:35-37; Luke 20:41-44; Acts 2:34; 7:55: Romans 8:34; Colossians 3:1; Hebrews 1:13; 10:12,13; 1 Peter 3:22; John 5:22) Paul in verse 17 speaks of the Lord who gave him power. Who had he spoken of earlier as the one who gives us power, and to whom we should be approved as workmen? (2 Timothy 1:7,8; 2 Timothy 2:15; 3:17) It is God, Yahweh, thus we have good reason to believe that "the Lord" in 2 Timothy 4:14,17,18, and probably verse 22 has reference to Yahweh, not Jesus. (Verse 22 in the Text Receptus has "the Lord Jesus Christ", whereas earlier manuscripts do not refer to Jesus Christ in this verse. Thus many read similar to Rotherham's: "The Lord, be with thy spirit. Favour, be with you.")

But we let us assume that "the Lord" here refers to Jesus, the one made Lord and Christ by the only true God. We would find that the word "doxa" was used toward Jesus, but not at the beginning of the phrase. Does this mean that Jesus is God Almighty? Absolutely not! Yes, Jesus being highly exalted by God will receive glory forever and ever. There is nothing in this that means that Jesus is God Almighty, except that one would want to read such into what Paul states here. There is no reason to read such an idea into what Paul states here, even if he meant this to be a reference to Jesus as "the Lord".

2 Peter 3:18 - But grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. To him be fthe glory both now and forever. Amen.

The only true God, the God and Father of our Lord Jesus, is the one who anointed Jesus and made him to be Lord and who sent him as to save the world. Yes, God has rewarded him with glory now and forever. Praise Yah! Amen!

****

This document is provided by Restoration Light Bible Study Services. This page may be freely printed and distributed as long as there are no additions or deletions to its content, including this notice.

We present the following for further study, but we do not necessarily agree with all conclusions of the authors.

The Trinity: Romans 9:5 -- Wrested Scriptures (Christadelphian)
Another source of the same document: CLICK HERE

http://jehovah.to/exegesis/translation/romans95.htm
"Over All” in Romans 9:5 - Translation Issues and Theological Import - Gregg Stafford

http://users.eggconnect.net/noddy3/rom95.htm
Romans 9:5 Defense of the New World Translation Site

http://hector3000.future.easyspace.com/ezra_rom95.htm
On the Construction of Romans 9:5 by Ezra Abbott [From the Journal of the Society of Biblical Literature and Exegesis for 1881.]

Last Updated: February, 2004

Related Links:
We give the following links from other authors that give more information. We do not necessarily agree with all the statements made, nor do these authors necessarily agree with all our views on the scriptures.